I thought I would answer Steve Rudd's 85 questions "Sabbatarians" don't like to be asked posted at http://www.bible.ca/7-sabbath-questions.htm Personally, as a Natzari Jew I liked to be asked questions about my faith, and the sabbath is no exception. Some of the questions are repetitive, some suppose that sabbath observers disagree when quite often we do agree, and some of the questions are very poorly conceived.
If every man from Adam to Moses kept the Sabbath, why is the Hebrew word for the weekly Sabbath found in the ten commandments, never found in the book of Genesis? Why is no one before Moses ever being told to keep the Sabbath. Why are there no examples of anyone keeping the Sabbath?
Actually the same word is found in Genesis 2:3 and 2:3 when God was establishing the very first Sabbath upon the seventh day. The scriptures up until this point are silent concerning the issue of man's keeping of the Sabbath, and many other issues. This is not a valid reason to disobey God once He did give the commandment. The same could be said concerning the sanctification of Sunday. Why is the entire bible silent concerning that? The real question is where in the bible was anyone told to stop keeping the Sabbath.
Why were the Patriarchs never instructed about he Sabbath, but were instructed regarding: offerings: Gen 4:3-4, Altars Gen 8:20, Priests: Gen 14:18, Tithes: Gen 14:20, Circumcision: Gen 17:10, Marriage: Gen 2:24 & Gen 34:9. Why would God leave out the "all important" Sabbath command?
Why would God leave out the all important no homosexuality commandment or the no seance commandment? Because God chooses to reveal what He wants, to whom He wants, when He wants, and He obviously did not reveal everything all at once.
If the fact that God wrote the 10 commandments on stone proves they are forever, then whatever happened to the two stone tablets that God gave Adam at the beginning of time? Why is Moses the first one to see a stone tablet written by the finger of God?
The bible does not say that Adam was given two stone tablets. To answer the second question see my answer above.
Why is the weekly Sabbath commandment never quoted in the New Testament?
Christians like to criticize the lack of a verbatim repetition of every single "Old Testament" commandment in the "New Testament" as evidence that they no longer apply to the followers of the Messiah. This is hypocritical since there is no review of the commandments against homosexuality, seances, and many more commandments that many Christians continue to observe to this day. The real question is, why do Christians pick and choose which commandments want to keep or not. What is the method to their madness?
Why is the Sabbath the only one of the ten commandments that are said to be "throughout your generations", the usual phrase that indicates it was a temporary ceremonial law only for the Jews?
That is because the Sabbath is a blessing only meant for the Jews/Israel. Christians and other gentiles are subject to man's laws on that day since they have no obligations to the law of Israel.
Why is there no example of exclusively Christians coming together on the Sabbath day as a church or prayer meeting after the resurrection of Christ?
Because the mind of a Christian is carnally minded and has emnity towards God for it is not subject to the law of God, neither indeed can be. (Romans 8:7)
Why is there no command in the New Testament for Christians to keep the Sabbath holy?
The New Testament does not address Christians. It was written by Jews for Jews and those converting to Judaism. The first Christians came long after it was written with their own beliefs.
While Paul taught in the synagogues up to 84 times, why does the Bible never say he kept the Sabbath?
Teaching in the synagogue on the Sabbath is part of keeping the Sabbath. We know that Paul kept the Sabbath since he was born and at no time in the New Testament does it ever say he stopped keeping it or taught others to stop keeping it. If he did, then he would be violating the Messiah's teaching to not violate or even teach against even the least of the commandments - something which Christians do on a daily basis.
If Paul’s action of preaching to non-believers 84 times in the book of Acts on the Sabbath make him a Sabbath keeper, is a Seventh-day Adventist pastor a Sunday keeper if we invite him for 84 Sundays in a row to teach us about God’s word?
No. Besides, there are no rules to keeping Sunday are there? And if there are, who made them up? I can only imagine that an Adventist would be preaching about keeping the Sabbath on any day of the week. Does the fact that Paul never visited a single church in all his life nor sanctified any Sunday provide any example to you?
How could Adam, Noah and Abraham keep the Sabbath, when Deuteronomy 5:2-4 says that the 10 commandment covenant (see was "not made with any of the fathers of Israel who lived before Moses."
Could it be that they simply followed God's example since surely they all knew that He rested on the seventh day? That is of course assuming that they did, and we make no such claim.
If we must follow the example of Jesus in all things like keeping the Sabbath, then why do Sabbatarians not follow the example of Jesus in circumcision, animal sacrifices and keeping Passover?
We do all of these things except for regular animal sacrifices, since part of keeping the law is also obey the commandment to NOT sacrifice, unless there is a functional temple in Jerusalem. (Deuteronomy 12:13-14)
If the Sabbath was for Gentiles and Adam, Noah and Abraham, then why is the Sabbath a sign to remind their exodus from Egypt? Exodus 16:23,29; 31:13-18. Were either Abraham or Seventh-day Adventists ever slaves in Egypt?
No. Again, the Sabbath is only for God's people, Israel.
If the Sabbath law is still in force, then why do they not stone their own members when they break the Sabbath as the law said?
Good point. Many of those Christians who for some reason do keep the Sabbath are not keeping the whole law as they should, which includes judgment of offences. Although stoning is technically within the options of the court, it may choose to exercise more effective alternatives that are no less serious. The ultimate goal is to reform the sinner, but not at the expense of the whole community.
Ellen G. White, who is considered inspired by Seventh-day Adventists, said that the Pope changed the Sabbath in about 321 AD. Why do all Adventists today reject their inspired prophet and say the change of the Sabbath occurred in about 140 AD? If White was wrong about this, was she wrong when she traveled to heaven and saw the 4th commandment glowing brighter than all the rest?
I am not a Seventh-day Adventist and I do not represent their position, so I really should not attempt to answer on their behalf.
If the current position of the Seventh-day Adventist church is that the change from Saturday to Sunday took place in 140 AD, doesn’t that mean that they have come a long way from Whites 325 AD and have only 40 more years to travel to reach the truth of the Apostolic age?
Same answer as above.
If the change from Saturday to Sunday happened, why is there absolutely no discussion of this change of actual day for the first 600 years of church history. Merely calling Sunday the Sabbath doesn’t count!
You are basically right. There never was any change. Christianity was formed out of aversion to anything Jewish including the Sabbath, and so from it's earliest days, in the second century, Sunday became the default sanctified day in order to memorialize the resurrection. Nazarenes and other Jews always continued on observing the Sabbath just as the Messiah and all his disciples did. The rulings of the church councils to enforce Sunday observance were to antagonize Sabbath keeping Nazarenes and other Jews and to prevent Judaizing.
If Sabbatarians reject White’s inspiration, that Constantine change the Sabbath day to Sunday, why do they keep bringing Constantine up as proof? If Constantine changed the Sabbath to Sunday, why does here merely legislate that work must stop on Sunday with no actual mention of the day being moved?
See my answer above.
If the first/old covenant was abolished according to Heb 8:13 and the Ten commandment law was that first covenant (Ex 34:27-28; 1 Kings 8:9,21; Heb 9:1-4), then why do Sabbatarians want to keep the first/old covenant?
The real question is why do you want to keep the first/old covenant? Or do you reject all of those 10 commandments?
Why is the universal record of history (75-500AD) 100% in unanimous agreement that Christians never kept the Sabbath (7th day) and have always worshipped on Sunday?
Again, because Christianity was founded upon anti-Jewish principles. The Sabbath was never originally part of the fundamental beliefs of Christians.
Why is the universal record of history (75-500AD) 100% in unanimous agreement that Christians ate the Lord’s Supper every Sunday in the tradition of Acts 20:7?
Because they didn't see it as a Jewish custom, although it was instituted by a Rabbi.
Why is the universal record of history (75-500AD) 100% in unanimous agreement that Christians always called Sunday the Lord’s Day because, they said, this was the day Jesus rose from the dead?
Probably because it sounds better than "Sunday" which would infer that they were only carrying on an old tradition of honouring the Sun god.
Why has no Sabbatarian every produced even one historical quote (75-500AD) that says Christians kept the Sabbath?
Because there are no sources that say they did? I am just assuming this is probably true.
If the Sabbath is not a ceremonial law, then why is it lumped into the same identical class of "holy convocations" as the rest of the Jewish feast days? Lev 23:2; Ex 20:9; 31:17
There is no such thing as a ceremonial law. But even moreso because not working couldn't really be described as a "ceremony" it is actually a holiday law grouped in with the other holidays.
If the 10 commandments remain but the book of law was abolished, then why did God put two copies of the 10 commandments in the book of the law? Ex 20; Deut 5
What if the book of the law is not abolished? We don't believe it is abolished since the Messiah said he did not come to abolish any of it (Matthew 5:17). By believing in his teaching we can avoid foolish questions.
How can there possibly be an difference between "the law of God" and the "Law of Moses" when God gave the Law of Moses (Ezra 7:6; Neh 8:1) and Moses gave the Law of God (Neh 10:29; 2 Chron 34:14)?
Excellent observation, there is no difference.
If there is a distinction between the moral and ceremonial laws, why are the Jewish feast days called part of the Law of the Lord? (2 Chron 331:3)
See above answer.
If there is a distinction between the moral and ceremonial laws, why in a single chapter of Nehemiah 8are the following phrases all used interchangeably: "book of the law of Moses" v1, "the law" v2, "book of the law" v3, "the law of god" v8, "book of the law of god" v18?
See above answer.
Why are the two most important commandments contained within the "ceremonial law of Moses that was Sabbatarians say was nailed to the cross? (Matthew 22:36-40)
We do not claim that any laws were nailed to any cross.
Why did Jesus say Moses gave the 10 commandment law: "Thou shalt not kill" in Jn 7:19?
Because Moses was the prophet of God.
If the Sabbath cannot change, because God cannot change (Mal 3:6) then what about all the other feast days and laws that changed? Heb 7:12. And why did Jesus give a "a new commandment" in John 13:34?
Well we don't believe the other feast days changed either. As far as new commandments, it was John who taught that they weren't really new at all, but that they were actually the same old commandments we've had from the beginning. They only seemed new in the way they were being presented. See 1 John 2.
If the ten commandments are going to be in heaven, what is the use of "thou shalt not commit adultery", if there is no marriage in heaven? Lk 20:34-35
Obviously it becomes dormant just like those commandments that apply only when there is a temple in service. Besides if you think about it, God has often considered his relationship with his people like a marriage, as has the messiah. Thus we speak of the marriage supper of the lamb. If we are married in this sense, surely there is a possibility of adultery in the same sense.
If the Sabbath was given to all men, why were Gentiles called "strangers". Why were Gentiles outside the gates not required to keep the Sabbath? Ex 20:10.
How could the Sabbath be a sign between God and Israel, if all nations were expected to keep it? Ex 31:17
Why did God send the Jews into Babylonian Captivity for breaking the Sabbath, but never ever criticized any Gentiles for never keeping the Sabbath?
You're on a roll!
Why did God often criticize the Gentiles via the prophets for moral violations, but never for not keeping the Sabbath?
See my answer to question #2.
If the Gentiles were supposed to keep the Sabbath, why are they called "strangers of the Covenant" in Eph 2:12?
Christians are strangers to the covenant, because they have no special covenant with God.
If the term, "the law" always means the 10 commandments, then why is Leviticus called "The Law" in Mt 22:35ff, Numbers called "The Law" in Mt 12:5, Deuteronomy called "The Law" in Mt 22:35f, Psalms called "The Law" in Jn 10:34,45, Rom 3:10-12; 3:13-14,19, the Prophets called "The Law" in 1 Cor 14:21 and the Ten commandments are called "The Law" that is abolished in Rom 7:4-7?
They are all the greater Torah or the Law as you prefer to call it.
If the term "commandments" always means the 10 commandments, then why are the laws that are not part of the ten commandments but called commandments in Mt 19:16-19 not also included?
Obviously there are more than 10 commandments.
If the term "commandments" always means the 10 commandments, then what did Paul call the injunction for prophet’s wives to keep silent in the assemblies, a "commandment of the Lord" in 1 Cor 14:37?
See above answer.
If the term "keep my commandments" always means the 10 commandments, then why is this a new commandment? Jn 15:10-12 + Jn 13:34.
Love one another, that is a old one but a good one. Again, John explains that these so called new commandments are not really new commandments.
If only the ten commandments are going to endure until heaven and earth pass away, why did Jesus say the law AND THE PROPHETS? Mt 5:17-18
When Jesus was asked, "Teacher, which is the great commandment in the Law?" why did Jesus NOT QUOTE from the 10 commandments, but from the abolished ceremonial law of Moses? Matthew 22:36-40
He quoted from the 10 commandments when asked how to obtain eternal life. It's all one and the same law.
If the 10 commandments are the highest and most complete expression of God’s will, then why did it lack the two most important commandments? Matthew 22:36-40 where is the prohibition against drunkeness, homosexuality and fornication?
The two most important commandments were given as a summary of all the dozens of commandments given in the law, just as the 10 commandments are also a categorical summary of all the commandments.
If the 10 commandments are the highest and most complete expression of God’s will, then why did Jesus give a new commandment to "love one another, even as I have loved you" John 13:34. Where were the Jews told to love their neighbor as Yahweh loved them?
All through the Torah Jews are told to love one another by not bearing false witness against another, not murdering, not lying, by remembering the poor, etc. The Messiah's commandment was nothing new. His commandment was a summary of all these old commandments concerning your neighbour.
If Christians worshipping on Sunday is equal to Sun Worship, then is Adventists worshipping on Saturday equal to Saturn worship?
Nice try, but Saturday is not the Sabbath. Saturday is not even on the Jewish calendar, but rather on the Roman calendar. When you overlay the two the Sabbath partially overlaps two different Roman days, both Friday and Saturday. The Sabbath is completely independent of the Roman Saturday unlike the Christian Sunday which is totally dependent on the Roman calendar. The Church honours Rome and it's institutions and holidays by following its calendar and that is why Christians honour the sun god on Sunday, and Jews do not honour Saturn.
If Sabbatarians will boldly quote "scholars" who are really Bible trashers and skeptics who claim "the origin of Sunday worship is entirely pagan", like Arthur Weigall in his ridiculous little book, "the paganism in our Christianity", will these same Sabbatarians turn a few pages later where these same authors say the origin of the Sabbath is also pagan? "I have, already mentioned that Sunday, too, was a pagan holy-day; and in this chapter I propose to discuss the origin of this custom of keeping one day in the week as a Sabbath, or "day of rest,' and' to show that the practice was forcefully opposed by Jesus Christ. The origin of the seven-day week which was used by the Jews and certain other peoples, but not till, later by the Greeks or Romans, is to be sought in some primitive worship of the moon (The Paganism in Our Christianity, Arthur Weigall, 1928, p209,210-211)
I have never quoted Arthur Weigall. If Christians really wanted to separate themselves from honouring the pagan gods of Rome, they could just stop following the Roman calendar and follow the Jewish calendar and have their special day on the first day of the Jewish week instead of on Sunday. The real question is, why don't they.
If the Sabbath is a moral law, why did Jesus say that David, the priests, a man with his donkey could all break the Sabbath without sin? Mt 12:1-14; Mk 2:23f, Lk 13:10-17; 14:1-6 Jn 5:8-18; 7:19-24; 9:14-16.
For the same reason that all Rabbis say that we can break the Sabbath, in order to prevent suffering. Man was not made to suffer for the Sabbath, but the Sabbath to suffer for man.
If the Sabbath is a moral law, why did God grow tired of the Jews keeping it and told them to stop keeping the Sabbath? Isa 1:13-14 Did God ever grow weary of anyone not committing adultery or murder, and tell them to be immoral and kill?
The answer is right there in Isaiah 1:15-16. God can not stand a sinful people who attempt to observe His holidays because of their iniquity and hypocrisy. The reason God never grows weary of not committing adultery or murder is because that is exactly what he wants. He never asked us to not observe the Sabbath. But nice try anyhow.
If the Sabbath is a moral law, how could Jesus break it without sinning? Jn 5:18
See my answer two above.
If one of the distinctions between the ten commandments was proven by the fact they were written by the finger of God, why did Moses copy them out twice with his own hand? How can there be any distinction between the 10 commandments in the ark and the book of the law beside the ark, if the book contained two copies of exactly what was in the ark?
There couldn't be.
Why are the terms "ceremonial law" and "moral law" never found in the Bible. Why is the word ceremonial or any of its roots never found in the same verse as the word LAW and why is the word moral or any of its roots never found in the same verse as the word LAW?
Because there is no such division of the law into ceremonial and moral.
If there is a distinction between moral and ceremonial laws, why do "God’s laws" and "the law of God" contain ceremonial laws. Why do "Moses law" and the "law of Moses" contain moral laws?
Same answer as above.
If there is a distinction between moral and ceremonial laws, why does the "law of God" command animal sacrifices Lk 2:23-24 and the "law of the Lord" contains burnt offerings 2 Chron 31:3; 1 Chron 16:40?
As you said, if there were.
If there is a distinction between moral and ceremonial laws, then why is the book of the law filled with moral laws not contained in the 10 commandments?
If there is a distinction between the Law of the Lord and the Law of Moses, why in 2 Chron 35:26 are "the acts of Josiah and his deeds of devotion as written in the law of the Lord"?
If there is a distinction between moral and ceremonial laws, then why does the Law of God include new moons, solemn feast days: Ps 81:3-4?
If there is a distinction between the Law of the Lord and the Law of Moses, why did the law tell Israel to dwell in tents: Neh 8:14?
If Jesus came to fulfill the law and the prophets, then didn’t Mt 5:17 say that only then would they be abolished before heaven and earth pass away? If the law and the prophets are still in force, doesn’t that prove Jesus didn’t fulfill the law completely?
What are the odds that heaven and earth will pass away anytime soon? Until that happens, the law is here to stay.
When you ask me, "if the 10 commandments are abolished, does that mean we can steal", can I ask you, "when you travel from Canada to the USA, does that mean you can steal? Is it possible that two completely different "codes of law" (law of Moses vs. law of Christ) have the same laws just like Canada and the USA?
Is it possible, that that the law of Moses is in fact the law of Christ? John seems to think so. (1 John)
If the Jewish law against eating pork was abolished by Christ, why do Sabbatarians continue to enforce what they call, "the ceremonial law of Moses": Mk 7:18-19; 1 Tim 4:1-4; Rom 14:2; Acts 10:9-16
If it were abolished, then this might be a good question. But alas, it was not abolished.
If the Jewish law of Tithing is forbidden in 2 Cor 9, why do Sabbatarians practice from "ceremonial law of Moses"?
The commandment concerning tithing is dormant just as the priesthood that was entitled to it is dormant. Those commandments that are currently applicable should be observed.
If the Jewish Sabbath was abolished in Col 2:14-16, yet Sabbatarians keep the Sabbath, which itself is the only ceremonial law of the 10 commandments?
We've already established and agree that there is no ceremonial vs. moral law. Some Christians may be purporting this distinction, however Jews do not.
Why do you practice Tithing which is Prohibited: 2 Cor 9:7 forbid Eating Pork, which is Permitted: Mk 7:18-19 and keep the Sabbath which is Abolished: Col 2:14-16? Aren’t all three of these ceremonial laws?
This sounds like a question for Christians who practice hypocrisy. For Israel, tithing is dormant, pork is prohibited, and the Sabbath is required.
When Sabbatarians attempt to prove there is a distinction between the moral vs. ceremonial laws, the law of God vs. the Law of Moses, the 10 commandments vs. and the book of the law, and they shown countless bible passages that destroy any distinction Sabbatarians might dream up, will they at least be honest and admit they need to find some definitive way to create this false distinction that does not exist in the Bible and will try again tomorrow?
I hope they come to that honest recognition as well.
Why do you refuse to accept that Col 2:16 contains the Old Testament pattern of referring to the Jewish holy days in a yearly, monthly, weekly sequence as in 1 Chronicles 23:31, 2 Chronicles 31:3, 2 Chronicles 8:13, 2 Chronicles 2:4, Nehemiah 10:33, Ezekiel 45:17, Hosea 2:11, Galatians 4:10?
I can accept that. Excellent evidence that after Messiah these things are practiced by his followers and Paul supported it 100%.
If the plural "sabbaton" in Col 2:16 cannot refer to weekly Sabbath day, then why does plural "sabbaton" refer to the weekly Sabbath day in Matthew 28:1, Luke 4:16, Acts 16:13, Exodus 20:8 (in Septuagint) Leviticus 23:37-38 (in Septuagint)?
This is really a question for those who rely upon the Greek scriptures to prove their points. Therefore this question does not apply to us.
If in Col 2:16, the lack of the definite article before the word "Sabbath" in the Greek proves it cannot refer to the weekly Sabbath, then why does the weekly Sabbath lack the definite article in Matthew 28:1, John 5:9, 10, 16?
See answer above.
If Isa 66:23 proves the Sabbath will be in heaven, will the new moon festival also be there? "from new moon to new moon And from Sabbath to Sabbath".
It doesn't talk about the Sabbath being in heaven, but on earth, and along with the new moon festival it will be observed through sacrifices at the temple in Jerusalem. At that time, everyone on earth will convert to Judaism and worship our God. It is your destiny.
If Hebrews 4 teaches we are to keep the weekly Sabbath, then why does the text say we are to enter a rest that none of the Jews at the time of Joshua in the promised land ever experienced in v 8?
Hebrews 4 refers to the seventh day as a model of the greater scheme for a rest at the end of our days.
If the Sabbath will endure forever because it is called "eternal" then won’t all the Jewish feasts and circumcision also endure because it is also called eternal in Gen 17:10-14 (same Hebrew word used)
If the Sabbath will endure forever because it is called "holy" then won’t all the Jewish feasts also endure forever because they are also called holy?
If the Sabbath will endure forever because God hallowed it, then won’t Solomon's temple Ps 65:4; 1 Ki 9:3 and the vessels in the tabernacle Ex 40:9; Num 31:6; 1 Ki 8:4 also endure forever because God hallowed them too?
The reason the Sabbath will endure forever isn't because God "hallowed" it, but just because He says so. He never said the vessels or the temple would endure forever.
If the Sabbath will endure forever because it was an eternal sign between God and his people, then shouldn’t we also still practice circumcision Gen 17:11 and Passover Ex 12:13 because it too is called an eternal sign between God and his people?
If it is only through the Sabbath that we can know that it is God who sanctifies us Ex 31:13, then what ever happened to faith in Christ sanctifying us? Any if we should therefore keep the Sabbath, then we must also build the tabernacle, for the Bible says through it we may know it is God who sanctifies us Ezel 37:28?
Deuteronomy 28:9 "The LORD shall establish thee an holy people unto himself, as he hath sworn unto thee, if thou shalt keep the commandments of the LORD thy God, and walk in his ways."
Matthew 19:17 "..if thou wilt enter into life, keep the commandments."
If the fact that the Sabbath is mentioned in the New Testament after Pentecost proves it is still in force, then does the mention of The Day of Pentecost Acts 2:1, The days of unleavened bread Acts 12:3; 20:6, Days of Purification: Acts 21:26, Animal Sacrifices: Acts 21:26, Circumcision: Acts 16:3, Temple worship: Acts 24:12 prove we must keep these too because they are also mentioned and must therefore also still be in force like the Sabbath?
Basically yes. However when God causes His temple to be destroyed, and takes it away, we can not just rebuild it until He signals that time having arrived. Unlike the temple and its sacrifices, He did not cancel the Sabbath. In essence, worship is not a physical act, but a spiritual one, and this is why the Messiah said that the time was coming when we would no longer worship through the temple but purely through spirit. The temple was merely a stepping stone from the carnal world into the spiritual. The original temple existed long before Moses, as he only imitated it from heaven.
If Seventh-day Adventists want to deny that their official position is that worshipping on Sunday is the Mark of the Beast, do they realize that the "inspired" Ellen G. White, Uriah Smith, the Advent review and Leo Schreven (who conducts "Revelation seminars" today) all call it the mark of the beast?
This question only applies to Seventh-day Adventists.
Christians can find 21 reasons why the first day of the week is significant to their faith as Christians in the New Testament. Can Sabbatarians find even one reason in the New Testament why the Sabbath has any meaning distinct to Christians?
I can't think of any. As long as a Christian maintains emnity towards God's commandments, they will only adhere to what suits their personal sense of morality and necessity.
Did you know that the Jewish Sabbath was significant to the Jews because it was a memoral of this present physical creation and their deliverance from the bondage of Egypt and that the first day of the week is a memorial of our new creation in Christ (2 Cor 5:7) and our deliverance from the bondage of sin. (Gal 4:4-5; Eph 1:7)
The bondage of sin is sin itself. Since Christians are still sinners, they are still in bondage. Therefore there is no new creation, but the old sinner remains, only now he believes there are no consequences for his sins because Jesus took those consequences upon himself. Sunday is just a way of expressing contempt for anything Jewish including God's commandments.
Did you know that regardless of whether the Sadducee’s or Pharisee’s method of calculating Pentecost was used the year Christ died, both would calculate Pentecost in Acts 2:1 as the first day of the week. Did you also know that the official position of the Seventh-day Adventist church was that Pentecost in Acts 2:1 fell on a Sunday that year?
Now I do. Forgive me but this question seems rather irrelevant.
Do you realize that the phrase, "that no collections be made when I come" in 1 Cor 16:2 proves the Christians were forbidden from saving up their offerings each week at home and demanded they put it into a common treasury every Sunday?
Paul never addressed Christians at any time. A question first has to be based on facts before a proper answer can be formed.
Did you know that 1 Cor 16:2 actually says, "EVERY 1st day" because the same Greek phrase is also found in Acts 13:14 "appointed elders in EVERY church". Did you know that you must give every 1st day of the week in to the church’s common treasury?
The Greek book of Acts never mentions any "church", this is a concept that was inserted into Christian bibles in later times. There were no churches in the first century. Why would Jews be giving money to churches on the first day of every week anyways? Paul was featured teaching on the Sabbath, a day which upon the use of money is prophibited. Paul never said to collect on "every first day", but his reason for that one time collection was so that he would not have to ask when he got there. Interestingly, Paul says that this collection was to be sent to the apostlic council in Jerusalem. Is that where churches have been sending their collections all this time??
If Jesus died on Wednesday and rose on the Sabbath rather than a Friday - Sunday duration because you demand a full 72 hours in the grave, then why did Jesus count the Friday - Sunday duration as three days in Lk 13:32?
I am going be very flexible and go along with the Roman calendar here for your sake. Let's count. Friday day, Friday night, Saturday day, Saturday night, Sunday day, Sunday night. That is three full days in which a man can do his work. Now consider Messiah was buried when the sun set, so you can't count Wednesday day at all. You can count Wednesday night as the first night of three in the grave. Then you have Thursday day, Thursday night, Friday day, Friday night, and Saturday day. That is also three full days. So what's the problem?
If Jesus died on Wednesday and rose on the Sabbath rather than a Friday - Sunday duration because you demand a full 72 hours in the grave, why is exactly a 72 hour period called 4 days by Peter in Acts 10:3+9+23+24+30?
say it was Monday at the 9th hour when Peter and Cornelius had their
vision in verse 3. That is the starting point. Verse 9 is Tuesday
around noon. Verse 23 it is the next day Wednesday. Verse 24 & 30
it is the day after that on Thursday at the ninth hour. While this is
72 hours it is spread over four days. If it is not four days, then why
do you have the names of four days? Which one will you eliminate to
make it three days?
This is just further proof that the Messiah could not have risen on a Sunday as Christians believe since from Friday at the 12th hour until Sunday at the first hour you can neither fit three days or 72 hours. You must remember that Jewish days always begin at sunset. Sunset Friday until dawn Sunday is only 36 hours. Friday night coincides with the beginning of the Sabbath. Saturday night is the beginning of the next day, the first day of the week. There isn't a single verse that says he was in the grave on the first day of the week, that is merely an assumption. At best 36 hours can only cover two days, and not the three required by the Messiah's own prophecy. Just remember, there is no Friday in the Jewish week, Friday night in fact overlaps the Sabbath and therefore is not a day separate from the Sabbath in these calculations. Christianity therefore portrays Jesus as a false prophet.
If the fact that the 10 commandments were written in stone, that proves they will never be abolished, then where was Adam’s stone copy of the 10 commandments? Why did God not give Adam a stone copy once for all time? Why is it that Moses was first person in history to not only see the 10 commandments, but the first person to hold the stone tablets upon which the 10 commandments were written? Why do Seventh-day Adventists argue that the ten commandment law is no longer written in stone, but in the flesh of the human heart in 2 Corinthians 3:3? (Of course 2 Cor 3:3 says the 10 commandments were abolished and the new Covenant, the law of Christ is written on human hearts)
You already asked about where Adam's stones are in question #3. You also asked the second question previously. Who knows why Seventh-day Adventists argue what they do. Not all Sabbath keepers are Seventh-day Adventists. It is amazing that they think anything special at all out of all our commandments, since they are not part of Israel. I can only hope they adopt all of our ways, they certainly will not be cursed for doing so. The same goes for you too Steve, since you too have adopted some of our laws. Maybe you have a special edition of 2 Corinthians 3:3 that says the 10 commandments were abolished, but the original doesn't say that at all. Besides, how can something that was never observed by gentiles be taken away from them, or how could they have been schooled in the law until the Messiah came? That is extremely puzzling, unless they never were in the first.
If only the 10 commandments we can "live", then why does Ezek 20:11 say this of the "ceremonial law", "I gave them My statutes and informed them of My ordinances, by which, if a man observes them, he will live." (Ezek 20:11)?
He said it because it is true. We have already established and agree that there is no such division in the law between the ceremonial and moral.